Posted by Jay Bertolet on May 05, 2001 at 22:47:21:
In Reply to: Re: 3 Valve Vs. 4 Valve posted by fred young on May 05, 2001 at 22:13:59:
I've seen you make this statement a couple of times and I've always wondered about it. If you can, please answer a nagging question I've had:
If a manufacturer makes an instrument in three valve and four valve versions (of the same model), how is it that the four valve version will play more out of tune. Every instance I've ever seen of this involves taking the three valve version and slapping on the fourth valve and tubing. The instrument is identical in every respect, save the added fourth valve and tubing. I just don't understand how the presence of that extra tubing will make a 1-3 combination any more or less in tune. I understand your contentions regarding the acoustical errors involved in fingering combinations so don't misunderstand my question regarding those. I guess I'm looking for an explanation as to why a given three valve based fingering will be more out of tune on a four valve instrument. Can you explain this?